General English — Guess Paper 1
50 marks, 3 hours. Same official MGSU pattern as the real paper: Sections A, B, C compulsory (5 questions each); Section D — attempt any 5 of 6; Section E — attempt any 3 of 5 (250–300 words each).
Honesty note: This is a PREDICTION paper, not a guarantee. Ye prediction hai, guarantee nahi hai — these questions are selected from PYQ trends (Dec 2023, Jun 2025, Jun 2026) and syllabus weightage, lekin actual exam me same questions aayenge iski koi guarantee nahi hai. Use it for smart practice, not as a shortcut. Jo topics isme hain, unke aas-paas ke topics bhi taiyaar rakho.
Instructions
The question paper is divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E. Attempt the questions of each section as per the instructions given.
Sections A, B, C: Answer all five questions. Each question carries 1.5 marks.
Section D: Answer any five questions out of six. Each question carries 2.5 marks.
Section E: Answer any three questions out of five. Each question carries 5 marks (250–300 words).
Section A (Unit 1: Phonetics and Morphology) — 5 x 1.5 = 7.5 marks
Q1. Define intonation with suitable examples. (1.5)
Answer: Intonation is the rise and fall of the pitch of the voice while speaking. It shows the speaker's attitude and the type of sentence. Examples: falling intonation in statements — "She is my friend."; rising intonation in yes/no questions — "Are you coming?"
Q2. Phonetically transcribe the following words: (a) Sun (b) Fish (c) Chair. (1.5)
Answer: (a) Sun — /sʌn/ (b) Fish — /fɪʃ/ (c) Chair — /tʃeə(r)/
Q3. Put stress mark: (a) Beautiful (b) Begin (c) Teacher. (1.5)
Answer: (a) ˈbeautiful (b) beˈgin (c) ˈteacher
Q4. Form three words using the prefix 'mis-'. (1.5)
Answer: misbehave, misunderstand, misuse.
Q5. Form three words using the suffix '-tion'. (1.5)
Answer: education, action, nation.
Section B (Unit 2: Grammar) — 5 x 1.5 = 7.5 marks
Q6. Make one sentence each on the following patterns: (a) Subject + Verb + Object + Complement (b) Subject + Verb + Adverb (c) Subject + Verb + Object. (1.5)
Answer: (a) We found the movie interesting. (b) He drives carefully. (c) I love mangoes.
Q7. Fill in the blanks with appropriate determiners: (a) There isn't ______ milk in the jug. (much/many) (b) ______ students were absent today. (Few/A few) (c) I have ______ doubt about his honesty. (some/any) (1.5)
Answer: (a) There isn't much milk in the jug. (b) A few students were absent today. (c) I have some doubt about his honesty.
Q8. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb: (a) If I ______ rich, I would travel the world. (be) (b) My father ______ in a bank. (work) (c) The train ______ just left the platform. (have) (1.5)
Answer: (a) If I were rich, I would travel the world. (b) My father works in a bank. (c) The train has just left the platform.
Q9. Fill in the blanks with correct modals: (a) We ______ obey the traffic rules. (should/must) (b) She ______ swim when she was five. (can/could) (c) ______ you please help me with this bag? (Will/Would) (1.5)
Answer: (a) We must obey the traffic rules. (b) She could swim when she was five. (c) Would you please help me with this bag?
Q10. Rewrite the following sentences, correcting the error: (a) He don't know the answer. (b) She is more taller than her sister. (c) Each of the boys are ready. (1.5)
Answer: (a) He doesn't know the answer. (b) She is taller than her sister. (c) Each of the boys is ready.
Section C (Unit 3: Transformation) — 5 x 1.5 = 7.5 marks
Q11. Change the voice: (a) The police caught the thief. (b) She is writing a novel. (c) Did he complete the task? (1.5)
Answer: (a) The thief was caught by the police. (b) A novel is being written by her. (c) Was the task completed by him?
Q12. Change the following sentences into indirect speech: (a) She said, "I will meet you here tomorrow." (b) The teacher said to the students, "Work hard." (c) He asked, "Where do you live?" (1.5)
Answer: (a) She said that she would meet me there the next day. (b) The teacher advised the students to work hard. (c) He asked (me) where I lived.
Q13. Transform the following simple sentences into complex: (a) I do not know the cause of his anger. (b) I do not know the reason of his failure. (c) Only hard work leads to success. (1.5)
Answer: (a) I do not know why he is angry. (b) I do not know why he failed. (c) It is only hard work that leads to success.
Q14. Transform the following simple sentences into compound: (a) Having finished his work, he went home. (b) Besides being a teacher, he is a writer. (c) On account of illness, he could not attend the meeting. (1.5)
Answer: (a) He finished his work and went home. (b) He is not only a teacher but also a writer. (c) He was ill, so he could not attend the meeting.
Q15. Change the following sentences into negative or interrogative: (a) She speaks French fluently. (Interrogative) (b) They have finished the work. (Negative) (c) He is always late. (Negative) (1.5)
Answer: (a) Does she speak French fluently? (b) They have not finished the work. (c) He is never late.
Section D — Attempt any five questions. 5 x 2.5 = 12.5 marks
Q16. Elaborate and explain: "A stitch in time saves nine." (2.5)
Answer (model): This proverb means that a small problem fixed at the right time prevents a much bigger problem later — one stitch now saves nine stitches later. A tiny leak in the roof, repaired today, saves the whole ceiling from damage; a small health issue treated early saves a serious illness; a student who clears doubts daily avoids failing the exam. Delay always multiplies trouble, while timely action multiplies ease. In daily life, in studies and in business, wise people never postpone necessary work. The proverb therefore teaches the golden habit of acting promptly — a little effort at the right moment is worth far more than great effort after the damage is done.
Q17. Expand the idea: "Where there is a will, there is a way." (2.5)
Answer (model): This line means that strong determination always finds a path to success, no matter how difficult the situation. Helen Keller, though blind and deaf, became a world-famous writer through sheer willpower; Thomas Edison failed a thousand times before inventing the electric bulb. Every year, poor students with no facilities clear the toughest examinations because their will is stronger than their problems. Difficulties test us, but they cannot stop a person who refuses to give up. On the other hand, a weak-willed person finds excuses even in easy situations. Hence, success depends less on resources and more on resolve — where there is a will, there is surely a way.
Q18. Write the meaning of the following idioms: (a) To burn the midnight oil (b) To add fuel to the fire (c) At the eleventh hour (d) To bite the dust (e) To call it a day. (2.5)
Answer: (a) To burn the midnight oil — to work or study late into the night. (b) To add fuel to the fire — to make a bad situation worse. (c) At the eleventh hour — at the last possible moment. (d) To bite the dust — to fail; to be defeated. (e) To call it a day — to stop working for the day.
Q19. Paraphrase the following poem: (2.5)
I wandered lonely as a cloud
That floats on high o'er vales and hills,
When all at once I saw a crowd,
A host, of golden daffodils;
Beside the lake, beneath the trees,
Fluttering and dancing in the breeze.
— William Wordsworth
Answer (model paraphrase): The poet was walking alone, like a cloud floating high over valleys and hills, when suddenly he saw a large crowd — a whole host — of golden daffodils. They were growing beside the lake and under the trees, moving and dancing in the breeze. The unexpected sight of thousands of bright flowers filled the lonely poet's heart with joy. The poem shows how the beauty of nature can suddenly lift a sad or lonely mood and fill the mind with happiness that stays long after the moment has passed.
Q20. Read the following poetic stanza and comment upon the central idea: (2.5)
The curfew tolls the knell of parting day,
The lowing herd wind slowly o'er the lea,
The plowman homeward plods his weary way,
And leaves the world to darkness and to me.
— Thomas Gray
Answer (model): The central idea of the stanza is the peaceful close of a day in the countryside and the thoughtful mood it creates. The evening bell (curfew) announces the end of the day; the cattle move slowly across the meadow, and the tired farmer walks home, leaving the world to darkness and to the lonely poet. The scene is calm and quiet, yet it carries a deeper reflection — on the passing of time, the simple hard life of ordinary villagers, and the dignity of their labour. The stanza sets the tone for the whole elegy: respect for common people and a gentle meditation on life and death.
Q21. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below: (2.5)
Last Sunday, I visited the book fair held at the Town Hall ground. Hundreds of stalls displayed books on every subject — stories, science, history and competitive examinations. Students, teachers and parents crowded the stalls, searching for books of their choice. I bought two storybooks and a dictionary at a special discount. One corner of the fair had a children's activity zone where young readers were enjoying storytelling sessions. The most attractive part was the rare-books section, where old and precious books were on display. I spent nearly four hours there and returned home with a bag full of books and a heart full of joy. Such fairs develop the habit of reading among young people and should be organized every year.
Questions: (i) Where was the book fair held? (ii) Who visited the book fair? (iii) What did the writer buy? (iv) What was the most attractive part of the fair? (v) Why should such fairs be organized every year?
Answer: (i) The book fair was held at the Town Hall ground. (ii) Students, teachers and parents visited the book fair. (iii) The writer bought two storybooks and a dictionary at a special discount. (iv) The rare-books section, where old and precious books were on display, was the most attractive part. (v) Such fairs should be organized every year because they develop the habit of reading among young people.
Section E — Attempt any three questions. 3 x 5 = 15 marks (250–300 words each)
Q22. Write a report on the 'Blood Donation Camp' organized in the College. (5)
Outline:
- Headline: "Blood Donation Camp Organized at City College"
- Byline: Reported by [Your Name], place and date line.
- Introduction: What, when, where — camp organized in the college hall in association with the district hospital; inaugurated by the Principal.
- Main body: Doctors' team and arrangements; enthusiastic response — over 120 students and teachers donated blood; refreshments and certificates given; doctor's speech on the importance of blood donation.
- Conclusion: Successful social service event; vote of thanks.
Key points for 250–300 words: Formal tone, past tense, facts and figures (number of donors). Mention the organizing bodies and the purpose. Avoid emotional exaggeration — a report informs, it does not preach.
Q23. Write a brief note on the main types of content writing. (5)
Outline:
- Introduction: Content writing means creating written material for websites, businesses and media — every type has a different purpose and style.
- Types: (1) Blog writing — informative articles; (2) SEO content writing — written to rank on search engines; (3) Social media content — short, catchy posts; (4) Copywriting — persuasive writing for advertisements; (5) Technical content writing — manuals, guides and reports.
- Common features: Clear language, reader-focused, well-structured.
- Conclusion: Content writing is a growing career; choosing the right type depends on skill and interest.
Key points for 250–300 words: Define content writing first, then explain 4–5 types with one line and one example each. End with the career scope of content writing for students.
Q24. Create a blog on "Save Water, Save Life." (5)
Outline:
- Catchy title: "Every Drop Counts: Save Water, Save Life"
- Hook: Alarming facts — millions face water shortage; taps running dry in cities.
- Body: How we waste water daily (long showers, leaking taps, washing cars with pipes); simple saving tips — bucket bath, rainwater harvesting, reusing water.
- Conclusion + call to action: "Start from your home today — the future is in our hands."
Key points for 250–300 words: Conversational blog tone with subheadings. Use facts and everyday examples the reader can relate to. End with a strong call to action.
Q25. Write a dialogue between two friends discussing the importance of discipline in student life. (5)
Outline:
- Opening: Two friends, e.g. Neha and Pooja, talking before exams in the library.
- Neha: Discipline means a fixed routine — regular study, proper sleep, limited phone use; toppers succeed because of discipline, not just talent.
- Pooja: Agrees, adds examples — soldiers, sportspersons; discipline builds confidence and reduces exam fear.
- Close: Both decide to make a joint timetable and follow it strictly.
Key points for 250–300 words: Natural spoken language, short speeches, named speakers. Keep the discussion focused on student life with practical examples. End with a positive resolution.
Q26. You are Rohit. Write an e-mail to the editor of a newspaper highlighting the problem of increasing noise pollution in your city. (5)
Outline:
- Subject: "Increasing noise pollution in the city — request to raise the issue"
- Salutation: Respected Sir,
- Introduction: Introduce yourself as a concerned resident/student of the city.
- Problem: Loudspeakers late at night, pressure horns, DJ music — students cannot study, patients and old people suffer.
- Request: Request the editor to publish the issue so authorities take action; mention existing noise rules.
- Closing: Thank you; "Yours faithfully, Rohit, [address]".
Key points for 250–300 words: Formal and respectful tone. Give concrete examples of the problem and its effects. A letter to the editor aims at public awareness, so appeal to the common good.
Total: 50 marks. Yaad rakho — ye prediction hai, guarantee nahi. Section D me 6 me se best 5 chuno, Section E me wahi 3 topics likho jinme tum sabse confident ho. Pehle outline banao, phir 250–300 words me likho.
