EVS Mock Paper 1: 100 MCQs based on the official MGSU syllabus and PYQ weightage analysis.
Time: 2 hours | Marks: 100 | No negative marking | Passing: 36 marks
Tap Show Answer to check yourself. The Unit N tag shows which unit each question is from.
Q1. Weather phenomena such as clouds, rain and storms occur mainly in which layer of the atmosphere? Unit 1
- Troposphere
- Ionosphere
- Mesosphere
- Stratosphere
Show Answer
Answer: A — The troposphere is the lowest layer (8–18 km) where all weather happens; temperature falls with height here.
Q2. Glaciers, polar ice caps and seasonal snow cover together constitute the — Unit 1
- Biosphere
- Cryosphere
- Lithosphere
- Hydrosphere
Show Answer
Answer: B — The cryosphere is the frozen-water part of the Earth system — glaciers, ice caps, sea ice and permafrost.
Q3. Which of the following is a component of the man-made (anthropogenic) environment? Unit 1
- A highway network
- A coral reef
- A rainforest
- A natural lake
Show Answer
Answer: A — The anthropogenic environment includes everything humans build — roads, buildings, dams, cities — unlike natural features.
Q4. The first Intergovernmental Conference on Environmental Education was held at Tbilisi in the year — Unit 1
- 1977
- 1992
- 1987
- 1972
Show Answer
Answer: A — The UNESCO–UNEP Tbilisi Conference (1977) gave the first global framework for environmental education.
Q5. The Green Belt Movement, for which Wangari Maathai won the Nobel Peace Prize, was started in — Unit 1
- Kenya
- India
- Brazil
- Indonesia
Show Answer
Answer: A — Maathai's movement mobilised Kenyan women to plant millions of trees — a landmark of people's participation in conservation.
Q6. "The Earth has enough for everyone's need, but not for everyone's greed" — this famous warning is attributed to — Unit 1
- Mahatma Gandhi
- Charles Darwin
- Rachel Carson
- E. F. Schumacher
Show Answer
Answer: A — Gandhi's line is the philosophical root of sustainable development — distinguishing need from greed.
Q7. The "social environment" of human beings mainly includes — Unit 1
- Minerals and fossil fuels
- Air, water and soil
- Forests and wildlife
- Cultural traditions and institutions
Show Answer
Answer: D — The social environment is the human-made web of culture, customs, laws and institutions around us.
Q8. The "carrying capacity" of an environment refers to — Unit 1
- The maximum population it can support sustainably
- The number of industries it has
- The amount of rainfall it receives
- The total weight of all organisms
Show Answer
Answer: A — Carrying capacity is the maximum load an ecosystem can bear without degradation — the foundation of sustainability.
Q9. Formal environmental education is imparted primarily through — Unit 1
- Schools and college curricula
- Television serials
- Religious sermons
- Street plays
Show Answer
Answer: A — Formal EE is structured learning through curricula; TV, plays and campaigns are non-formal channels.
Q10. Teak and sal are the characteristic trees of — Unit 2
- Tropical evergreen forests
- Mangrove forests
- Alpine forests
- Tropical deciduous forests
Show Answer
Answer: D — Teak and sal shed leaves in the dry season — the hallmark of tropical deciduous forests covering much of India.
Q11. Joint Forest Management (JFM) in India involves — Unit 2
- Privatisation of forest land
- Complete state control of forests
- Banning all forest use
- Local communities in protecting and managing forests
Show Answer
Answer: D — JFM (started 1990) partners forest departments with village committees, sharing usufruct benefits.
Q12. Bauxite is the principal ore of — Unit 2
- Zinc
- Copper
- Aluminium
- Iron
Show Answer
Answer: C — Aluminium is extracted from bauxite by electrolysis; Odisha holds India's largest bauxite reserves.
Q13. India's Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), rich in marine resources, extends up to — Unit 2
- 200 nautical miles
- 24 nautical miles
- 12 nautical miles
- 350 nautical miles
Show Answer
Answer: A — Under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, a coastal state has sovereign rights over resources up to 200 nautical miles from its coast.
Q14. The largest wind farm cluster in India is located at — Unit 2
- Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
- Muppandal, Tamil Nadu
- Chitradurga, Karnataka
- Lamba, Gujarat
Show Answer
Answer: B — Muppandal in Kanyakumari district exploits strong monsoon winds and is among Asia's largest wind farm zones.
Q15. Biogas produced in gobar gas plants consists mainly of — Unit 2
- Methane
- Carbon monoxide
- Hydrogen sulphide
- Carbon dioxide
Show Answer
Answer: A — Biogas is 50–70% methane from anaerobic digestion of dung — a clean rural fuel.
Q16. "Jhum" cultivation, practised in Northeast India, is a form of — Unit 2
- Terrace farming
- Shifting cultivation
- Plantation agriculture
- Hydroponics
Show Answer
Answer: B — Jhum clears forest patches, farms them briefly, then shifts — sustainable at low population, harmful when cycles shorten.
Q17. Contour ploughing on hill slopes is practised mainly to — Unit 2
- Increase soil erosion
- Drain wetlands
- Promote waterlogging
- Prevent soil erosion
Show Answer
Answer: D — Ploughing along contours creates ridges that slow runoff and trap soil — a classic soil conservation method.
Q18. The Green Revolution in India mainly raised the production of — Unit 2
- Cotton and jute
- Tea and coffee
- Pulses and oilseeds
- Wheat and rice
Show Answer
Answer: D — High-yielding dwarf varieties of wheat and rice (1960s) made India food-secure — but bypassed pulses and oilseeds.
Q19. The "Blue Revolution" in India is associated with — Unit 2
- River linking projects
- Flood control
- Drinking water supply
- Fisheries development
Show Answer
Answer: D — The Blue Revolution boosted fish production through aquaculture — India is now among the top fish producers.
Q20. The largest consumer of freshwater in India is — Unit 2
- Industry
- Hydroelectric power
- Agriculture (irrigation)
- Domestic use
Show Answer
Answer: C — Irrigation guzzles about 80% of India's freshwater — the key reason water-efficient farming matters.
Q21. Drip irrigation saves water primarily by — Unit 2
- Flooding the whole field
- Delivering water directly to plant roots
- Spraying water in the air
- Storing water in tanks
Show Answer
Answer: B — Drip lines release water drop-by-drop at the root zone, cutting evaporation and runoff losses.
Q22. Which of the following crops needs the most water per hectare? Unit 2
- Bajra
- Mustard
- Sugarcane
- Gram
Show Answer
Answer: C — Sugarcane is notoriously water-guzzling (about 2000 mm) — a concern in water-scarce Maharashtra.
Q23. The largest source of commercial energy in India is — Unit 2
- Coal
- Petroleum
- Natural gas
- Hydroelectricity
Show Answer
Answer: A — Coal fires over half of India's commercial energy and about 70% of electricity — the core of India's energy dilemma.
Q24. Photovoltaic cells convert — Unit 2
- Wind into heat
- Solar energy into electricity
- Heat into motion
- Biomass into gas
Show Answer
Answer: B — Solar PV cells turn sunlight directly into electricity via the photovoltaic effect — no moving parts.
Q25. In India, the most promising site for tidal energy is the — Unit 2
- Hooghly estuary
- Gulf of Kutch
- Chilika Lake
- Gulf of Mannar
Show Answer
Answer: B — The Gulf of Kutch (and Khambhat) has high tidal ranges ideal for tidal power — a largely untapped resource.
Q26. Recycling aluminium saves about ___ of the energy needed to make it from bauxite ore. Unit 2
- 65%
- 95%
- 40%
- 10%
Show Answer
Answer: B — Aluminium recycling skips energy-hungry electrolysis — saving about 95% energy is why cans say "recycle me".
Q27. The transition zone between two ecosystems, rich in species from both, is called the — Unit 3
- Niche
- Sere
- Biome
- Ecotone
Show Answer
Answer: D — An ecotone (e.g., forest–grassland edge) hosts species of both communities plus edge specialists.
Q28. Net primary productivity is generally highest in — Unit 3
- Tundra
- Open oceans
- Deserts
- Tropical rainforests
Show Answer
Answer: D — Warmth, water and year-round sunlight make tropical rainforests the most productive land ecosystems.
Q29. In an ecosystem, "standing crop" refers to — Unit 3
- Annual rainfall
- Crops ready for harvest
- Total living biomass at a given time
- Rate of photosynthesis
Show Answer
Answer: C — Standing crop is the amount of living matter present at one moment — distinct from productivity, which is a rate.
Q30. The Sundarbans are famous for — Unit 3
- Coral reefs and lagoons
- Freshwater dolphins only
- Mangrove forests and the Royal Bengal tiger
- Alpine meadows
Show Answer
Answer: C — The Sundarbans (India–Bangladesh) hold the world's largest mangrove tract, home to the swimming Bengal tiger.
Q31. Coral reefs are built up by — Unit 3
- Marine algae alone
- Volcanic lava
- Accumulation of sand
- Coral polyps secreting calcium carbonate
Show Answer
Answer: D — Tiny coral polyps deposit limestone skeletons that accumulate into reefs — the oceans' rainforests.
Q32. The permanently frozen subsoil layer of the tundra is called — Unit 3
- Laterite
- Loess
- Permafrost
- Humus
Show Answer
Answer: C — Permafrost stays frozen year-round, so only shallow-rooted mosses and lichens grow in tundra summers.
Q33. In ecology, an organism's "niche" refers to its — Unit 3
- Functional role in the ecosystem
- Population size
- Physical address
- Migration route
Show Answer
Answer: A — Habitat is the address; niche is the profession — what a species does, eats and how it interacts.
Q34. Mycorrhiza is a mutualistic association between — Unit 3
- Insects and flowers
- Bacteria and legumes
- Algae and fungi
- Fungi and plant roots
Show Answer
Answer: D — Fungal hyphae extend the root's reach for phosphorus while the plant feeds the fungus sugars.
Q35. Atmospheric nitrogen is fixed into usable form mainly by — Unit 3
- Earthworms
- Green algae
- Rhizobium in legume root nodules
- Mycorrhiza
Show Answer
Answer: C — Rhizobium bacteria in root nodules of peas and beans convert nitrogen gas into ammonia — nature's fertiliser factory.
Q36. Unlike the carbon and nitrogen cycles, the phosphorus cycle has no — Unit 3
- Biological uptake
- Gaseous or atmospheric phase
- Link to rocks
- Role for decomposers
Show Answer
Answer: B — Phosphorus moves only through rocks, soil and water — never as a gas — making it slow and easily depleted.
Q37. The taiga biome is dominated by — Unit 3
- Coniferous forests
- Deciduous hardwood forests
- Thorn scrub
- Grasslands
Show Answer
Answer: A — The taiga's cold, long winters favour cone-bearing evergreens like pine, spruce and fir.
Q38. The temperate grasslands of North America are known as — Unit 3
- Pampas
- Velds
- Prairies
- Steppes
Show Answer
Answer: C — Prairies (North America), steppes (Asia), pampas (South America), velds (Africa) — same biome, different names.
Q39. Succulent, fleshy stems in cactus are an adaptation for — Unit 3
- Storing water
- Catching insects
- Climbing support
- Floating on water
Show Answer
Answer: A — Fleshy stems hoard water through long droughts while spines (modified leaves) cut water loss.
Q40. "Breathing roots" (pneumatophores) that grow upward from the mud are found in — Unit 3
- Mangroves
- Cacti
- Alpine herbs
- Freshwater lilies
Show Answer
Answer: A — Mangrove pneumatophores poke above waterlogged mud to breathe — a signature of tidal forests.
Q41. How many biodiversity hotspots touch Indian territory? Unit 4
- Six
- Four
- Three
- Two
Show Answer
Answer: B — The Himalaya, Indo-Burma, Western Ghats and Sundaland (Nicobar) hotspots all touch India.
Q42. Jared Diamond's "evil quartet" — the four major causes of biodiversity loss — includes — Unit 4
- Floods, droughts, cyclones and earthquakes
- Habitat loss, overexploitation, alien species invasion and extinction chains
- Air, water, soil and noise pollution
- Mining, farming, fishing and logging only
Show Answer
Answer: B — Diamond's evil quartet names the four horsemen of extinction — habitat loss leads the pack.
Q43. India's Biological Diversity Act was passed in the year — Unit 4
- 1992
- 1986
- 2002
- 2010
Show Answer
Answer: C — The 2002 Act implements India's Convention on Biological Diversity commitments and regulates access to biological resources.
Q44. The National Biodiversity Authority of India is headquartered at — Unit 4
- Dehradun
- Chennai
- Bengaluru
- New Delhi
Show Answer
Answer: B — The NBA sits in Chennai, Tamil Nadu — the statutory body under the 2002 Act.
Q45. Sacred groves protected by local communities are an example of — Unit 4
- Captive breeding
- Ex-situ conservation
- Seed banking
- Community-led in-situ conservation
Show Answer
Answer: D — Groves like Mawphlang (Meghalaya) survive on religious taboos — conservation rooted in culture, in nature's own home.
Q46. India's first biosphere reserve, notified in 1986, is the — Unit 4
- Nanda Devi
- Nilgiri
- Sunderbans
- Gulf of Mannar
Show Answer
Answer: B — The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (Tamil Nadu–Kerala–Karnataka) was India's first under UNESCO's Man and Biosphere programme.
Q47. Keoladeo National Park (Bharatpur) is world-famous for — Unit 4
- Lions
- Tigers
- Coral reefs
- Migratory birds
Show Answer
Answer: D — Keoladeo's wetlands host thousands of migratory birds, including the rare Siberian crane — a World Heritage Site.
Q48. The snow leopard, India's elusive mountain cat, is found in the — Unit 4
- Western Ghats
- Eastern Ghats
- Himalayas (Ladakh)
- Thar Desert
Show Answer
Answer: C — Snow leopards roam the high Himalayas — Hemis National Park in Ladakh is a prime habitat.
Q49. The hangul (Kashmir stag) survives only in — Unit 4
- Periyar National Park
- Corbett National Park
- Dachigam National Park
- Bandipur National Park
Show Answer
Answer: C — The hangul clings on in Dachigam near Srinagar — a critically endangered deer found nowhere else.
Q50. The dodo of Mauritius is the classic example of — Unit 4
- Successful reintroduction
- Human-caused extinction
- Natural selection
- Adaptive radiation
Show Answer
Answer: B — Flightless and fearless, the dodo was wiped out by sailors and introduced animals within a century of discovery.
Q51. The current rate of species extinction is estimated to be ___ the natural background rate. Unit 4
- Equal to
- 10 times
- 100–1000 times
- Twice
Show Answer
Answer: C — Scientists warn we are in a sixth mass extinction — species vanishing 100–1000 times faster than nature's normal pace.
Q52. The Svalbard Global Seed Vault conserves — Unit 4
- Wild animals
- Crop genetic diversity ex-situ
- Fossil specimens
- Marine fish stocks
Show Answer
Answer: B — Buried in Arctic permafrost, Svalbard backs up the world's crop seeds — insurance for food security.
Q53. "Biopiracy" refers to — Unit 4
- Pirates attacking ships
- Unauthorised commercial use of biological resources and traditional knowledge
- Illegal fishing
- Smuggling of tiger skins
Show Answer
Answer: B — Patenting neem or basmati without sharing benefits with knowledge-holders is biopiracy — theft of nature's commons.
Q54. India famously got foreign patents revoked in biopiracy cases involving — Unit 4
- Basmati rice only
- Turmeric only
- Both neem and turmeric
- Neem only
Show Answer
Answer: C — India proved prior traditional use and got US/European patents on neem (1990s–2000s) and turmeric revoked.
Q55. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was opened for signature at the — Unit 4
- Kyoto meeting 1997
- Stockholm Conference 1972
- Paris meet 2015
- Rio Earth Summit 1992
Show Answer
Answer: D — The Rio Earth Summit (1992) birthed the CBD — the global treaty for conserving biodiversity and sharing its benefits.
Q56. The tiger is called an "umbrella species" because protecting it — Unit 4
- Needs only zoos
- Indirectly protects its entire habitat and co-species
- Works only under forest canopy
- Harms other species
Show Answer
Answer: B — Tiger reserves shelter whole ecosystems — save the tiger's forest and you save everything under its "umbrella".
Q57. The Narcondam hornbill is endemic to — Unit 4
- Nicobar Islands
- Western Ghats
- Narcondam Island (Andaman)
- Lakshadweep
Show Answer
Answer: C — This hornbill lives only on tiny Narcondam Island — endemism at its most extreme and fragile.
Q58. Project Elephant, for the protection of wild elephants and their corridors, was launched in — Unit 4
- 2002
- 1992
- 1973
- 1982
Show Answer
Answer: B — Project Elephant (1992) mirrors Project Tiger — safeguarding elephant corridors across 16 states.
Q59. PAN (peroxyacetyl nitrate), which irritates the eyes, is a component of — Unit 5
- London smog
- Photochemical smog
- Acid rain
- Indoor smoke
Show Answer
Answer: B — PAN forms when sunlight cooks vehicle exhaust (nitrogen oxides + hydrocarbons) — the eye-burning signature of photochemical smog.
Q60. The yellowing and corrosion of the Taj Mahal's marble is mainly blamed on — Unit 5
- Fluoride in Yamuna water
- Carbon dioxide from traffic
- Sulphur dioxide from the Mathura refinery
- Dust from deserts
Show Answer
Answer: C — Sulphur dioxide from Mathura's refinery turns to acid that eats marble — the reason for the Taj Trapezium Zone.
Q61. Minamata disease, which shocked Japan in the 1950s, was caused by — Unit 5
- Lead poisoning
- Mercury poisoning
- Cadmium poisoning
- Arsenic poisoning
Show Answer
Answer: B — A chemical factory dumped mercury into Minamata Bay; it biomagnified through fish into humans — a landmark pollution tragedy.
Q62. Itai-itai disease of Japan was caused by chronic poisoning with — Unit 5
- Mercury
- Cadmium
- Chromium
- Lead
Show Answer
Answer: B — Cadmium from mining waste poisoned rice and water — "itai-itai" ("ouch-ouch") describes the bone pain.
Q63. The groundwater of several West Bengal districts is infamous for contamination with — Unit 5
- Fluoride
- Lead
- Arsenic
- Nitrate
Show Answer
Answer: C — Natural arsenic in Bengal's aquifers poisons wells — the world's largest mass poisoning via drinking water.
Q64. Dental and skeletal fluorosis in Rajasthan is caused by excess ___ in drinking water. Unit 5
- Fluoride
- Chlorine
- Sulphate
- Iron
Show Answer
Answer: A — Rajasthan's groundwater carries excess fluoride — mottled teeth and stiff joints are its signature.
Q65. Indoor air pollution in rural Indian homes comes mainly from — Unit 5
- Biomass chulhas
- Electric heaters
- Air conditioners
- Refrigerators
Show Answer
Answer: A — Wood, dung and crop-residue chulhas fill kitchens with smoke — a silent killer of rural women and children.
Q66. Radon, a radioactive gas seeping into homes from the soil, is a known cause of — Unit 5
- Deafness
- Diabetes
- Lung cancer
- Skin allergy
Show Answer
Answer: C — Radon is the second-biggest cause of lung cancer after smoking — an invisible indoor pollutant.
Q67. The Great Smog of London (1952), which killed thousands, led directly to the — Unit 5
- UK Clean Air Act, 1956
- Paris Agreement
- Montreal Protocol
- Kyoto Protocol
Show Answer
Answer: A — Five days of killer smog forced Britain to control coal smoke — the world's first major air pollution law.
Q68. The prescribed night-time noise limit for residential areas in India is — Unit 5
- 45 dB
- 55 dB
- 65 dB
- 75 dB
Show Answer
Answer: A — CPCB norms cap residential noise at 55 dB by day and 45 dB by night — silence zones are stricter still.
Q69. Biomedical waste from hospitals is most safely disposed of by — Unit 5
- Open dumping
- Incineration
- Roadside burning
- River disposal
Show Answer
Answer: B — High-temperature incineration destroys pathogens in infectious waste — the prescribed method for biomedical waste.
Q70. Incineration of municipal solid waste reduces its volume by about — Unit 5
- 30%
- 60%
- 10%
- 90%
Show Answer
Answer: D — Burning shrinks garbage to about 10% of its volume — but needs strict emission control for dioxins.
Q71. India's nationwide ban on identified single-use plastic items came into force in — Unit 5
- 2019
- 2022
- 2024
- 2016
Show Answer
Answer: B — From 1 July 2022 India banned 19 single-use plastic items — cutlery, straws, earbuds and the like.
Q72. "Microplastics" that now pollute oceans and even drinking water are — Unit 5
- Glass microspheres
- Plastic-eating bacteria
- Tiny plastic particles under 5 mm
- Biodegradable bags
Show Answer
Answer: C — Microplastics (under 5 mm) come from broken-down waste and microbeads — now found from the deep sea to human blood.
Q73. The 2013 Uttarakhand disaster (Kedarnath) was triggered mainly by — Unit 5
- Cyclone
- Earthquake
- Volcanic eruption
- Cloudburst and flash floods
Show Answer
Answer: D — Extreme cloudburst rain swelled rivers into flash floods that devastated Kedarnath — a Himalayan warning.
Q74. The devastating 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami was triggered by — Unit 5
- An undersea earthquake off Sumatra
- A meteorite strike
- A cyclone
- A volcanic island collapse
Show Answer
Answer: A — A magnitude-9.1 undersea quake off Sumatra sent killer waves across the Indian Ocean on 26 December 2004.
Q75. Catalytic converters fitted in vehicles convert — Unit 5
- Petrol into CNG
- Lead into gold
- Carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides into less harmful gases
- Noise into music
Show Answer
Answer: C — Catalysts turn poisonous carbon monoxide, unburnt hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides into carbon dioxide, water and nitrogen — cleaning exhaust at the tailpipe.
Q76. Lead was removed from petrol primarily because lead is a — Unit 5
- Lubricant
- Costly metal
- Engine coolant
- Neurotoxin harming children's brains
Show Answer
Answer: D — Leaded petrol poisoned children's developing brains — its phase-out is a celebrated public-health victory.
Q77. A sanitary landfill differs from an open dump because it is — Unit 5
- Located in deserts
- A deeper pit
- An engineered burial with liners and leachate control
- Burned daily
Show Answer
Answer: C — Sanitary landfills use clay/plastic liners, leachate collection and daily soil cover — open dumps have none of this.
Q78. India's E-Waste (Management) Rules, which introduced Extended Producer Responsibility, were notified in — Unit 6
- 2016
- 2020
- 2022
- 2011
Show Answer
Answer: A — The 2016 E-Waste Rules made producers responsible for collecting and recycling electronic waste in India.
Q79. SDG 13 specifically calls for action on — Unit 6
- Climate action
- Gender equality
- Quality education
- Clean water
Show Answer
Answer: A — SDG 13 is "Climate Action" — urgent steps against climate change and its impacts.
Q80. SDG 6 is dedicated to — Unit 6
- Life on land
- Decent work
- Affordable energy
- Clean water and sanitation
Show Answer
Answer: D — SDG 6 seeks universal safe drinking water and sanitation by 2030 — still distant for millions.
Q81. The Paris Agreement on climate change was adopted in — Unit 6
- 2009
- 2015
- 1997
- 2021
Show Answer
Answer: B — Paris (2015) commits nations to hold warming "well below" 2°C — the first universal climate deal.
Q82. At COP26, India announced its net-zero target year as — Unit 6
- 2070
- 2060
- 2080
- 2050
Show Answer
Answer: A — India's "Panchamrit" pledge at Glasgow (2021) sets net-zero by 2070 alongside 500 GW non-fossil capacity by 2030.
Q83. The historic Earth Summit was held at Rio de Janeiro in — Unit 6
- 1982
- 2002
- 1992
- 1972
Show Answer
Answer: C — Rio 1992 produced Agenda 21, the CBD and the UNFCCC — the cradle of modern environmental diplomacy.
Q84. Agenda 21, the blueprint for sustainable development, emerged from the — Unit 6
- Stockholm Conference
- Johannesburg Summit
- Rio Earth Summit
- Paris Conference
Show Answer
Answer: C — Agenda 21 (Rio 1992) is the 800-page action plan for sustainable development into the 21st century.
Q85. The slogan "Ecology is permanent economy" is associated with — Unit 6
- Sunderlal Bahuguna
- Salim Ali
- M. S. Swaminathan
- Medha Patkar
Show Answer
Answer: A — Chipko leader Bahuguna coined it — arguing that forests' ecological value outlasts one-time timber profit.
Q86. The Appiko movement, often called the "Chipko of the South", was launched in — Unit 6
- Karnataka
- Kerala
- Andhra Pradesh
- Tamil Nadu
Show Answer
Answer: A — Appiko (1983) in Karnataka's Western Ghats fought commercial felling — Chipko's southern echo.
Q87. The Silent Valley movement successfully stopped a hydroelectric project in — Unit 6
- Maharashtra
- Tamil Nadu
- Karnataka
- Kerala
Show Answer
Answer: D — Scientists and citizens saved Kerala's Silent Valley rainforest from damming in the 1980s — a conservation landmark.
Q88. The Wildlife (Protection) Act of India was enacted in — Unit 6
- 1980
- 1972
- 1986
- 2002
Show Answer
Answer: B — The 1972 Act created the legal shield for national parks, sanctuaries and species — India's wildlife charter.
Q89. Environmental Impact Assessment was made mandatory in India in — Unit 6
- 1994
- 2006
- 1986
- 2010
Show Answer
Answer: A — The 1994 EIA notification (under the EPA 1986) requires prior clearance for listed projects — recast in 2006.
Q90. The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) notification, protecting India's coastline, was first issued in — Unit 6
- 1986
- 2011
- 2001
- 1991
Show Answer
Answer: D — The 1991 CRZ notification restricts construction near the high-tide line — India's coastal shield.
Q91. Which state first made rooftop rainwater harvesting mandatory for buildings? Unit 6
- Rajasthan
- Maharashtra
- Gujarat
- Tamil Nadu
Show Answer
Answer: D — Tamil Nadu (2003) ordered rainwater harvesting in all buildings — Chennai's water table visibly recovered.
Q92. The Khejarli sacrifice of 1730, where Amrita Devi Bishnoi led 363 people to die protecting trees, took place in — Unit 6
- Madhya Pradesh
- Gujarat
- Rajasthan
- Haryana
Show Answer
Answer: C — The Bishnoi sacrifice at Khejarli (Rajasthan) inspired the Chipko movement two centuries later.
Q93. The Gadgil Committee report, which sparked a national debate, dealt with the ecology of the — Unit 6
- Eastern Ghats
- Western Ghats
- Aravalli hills
- Himalayas
Show Answer
Answer: B — The 2011 Gadgil report called the Western Ghats ecologically sensitive — its diluted successor was the Kasturirangan report.
Q94. The National Green Tribunal (NGT), India's dedicated environmental court, was established in — Unit 6
- 2010
- 2016
- 2001
- 1986
Show Answer
Answer: A — The NGT Act (2010) created a fast-track tribunal for environmental disputes — a global first of its kind.
Q95. The Forest Rights Act, recognising the rights of forest-dwelling communities, was passed in — Unit 6
- 2013
- 1988
- 1996
- 2006
Show Answer
Answer: D — The 2006 Act corrects the "historical injustice" to tribals and forest dwellers denied their traditional rights.
Q96. A person's "carbon footprint" is best defined as — Unit 6
- Coal dust on feet
- Total greenhouse gas emissions caused by their activities
- Forest area owned
- Shoe size
Show Answer
Answer: B — Your carbon footprint totals the carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases from your lifestyle — travel, diet, energy use.
Q97. "Sustainable consumption" means — Unit 6
- Avoiding all consumption
- Using resources so future generations can also meet their needs
- Consuming as much as possible
- Buying only imported goods
Show Answer
Answer: B — Sustainable consumption meets present needs without stealing from the future — the demand side of sustainability.
Q98. At a steady 2% annual growth rate, the population doubles in about — Unit 7
- 70 years
- 15 years
- 35 years
- 25 years
Show Answer
Answer: C — The rule of 70: 70 ÷ 2 = 35 years — why even small growth rates explode populations.
Q99. "Zero population growth" means a population where — Unit 7
- Births equal deaths
- Nobody is born
- Everyone migrates out
- Growth is negative
Show Answer
Answer: A — Zero population growth is the demographic balance point — births plus immigration equal deaths plus emigration.
Q100. India's total fertility rate has now fallen to about 2.0, which means — Unit 7
- Birth rate is zero
- Population will double soon
- It is below the replacement level of 2.1
- Every woman has 2 sons
Show Answer
Answer: C — Below the 2.1 replacement level, each generation is smaller than the last — India's population will stabilise, then shrink.
