EVS Guess Paper 1 — Predicted: 100 MCQs based on PYQ repeat analysis, unit weightage and rotation logic. This is a predicted paper — no guarantee these questions will appear in the exam. Tap Show Answer to check yourself. 🔥 = high priority, ⭐ = important.
Q1. Which of the following best explains why environmental studies is called 'multidisciplinary'? Expected 🔥
- It only studies chemistry
- It is a branch of physics
- It only studies biology
- It borrows concepts from natural sciences, social sciences and humanities
Show Answer
Answer: D — Environment connects physics, chemistry, biology, economics, sociology, law and ethics — no single discipline can explain it fully.
Q2. The need for public awareness about the environment arises mainly because — Expected
- Awareness increases industrial production
- Governments can solve everything alone
- Only scientists need to know about pollution
- Environmental protection needs the participation of every citizen
Show Answer
Answer: D — Laws and technology alone cannot save the environment — every citizen's daily choices (waste, water, energy) decide the outcome.
Q3. The lithosphere refers to — Expected
- The zone where life exists
- The water bodies of the Earth
- The solid outer crust and rocks of the Earth
- The air envelope around the Earth
Show Answer
Answer: C — Litho means stone — the lithosphere is the rigid rocky crust on which we live and farm.
Q4. The hydrosphere includes — Expected
- Only drinking water
- All water on Earth: oceans, rivers, lakes, groundwater and ice
- Only water vapour in the air
- Only the oceans
Show Answer
Answer: B — Hydro means water — about 71% of Earth's surface is covered by the hydrosphere, mostly oceans.
Q5. World Environment Day is celebrated every year on — Expected ⭐
- 5 June
- 22 April
- 1 December
- 11 July
Show Answer
Answer: A — 5 June marks the opening of the 1972 Stockholm Conference — the first global environment meet.
Q6. The 1972 Stockholm Conference is historic because — Expected
- It was the first global conference on the human environment
- It started the Green Revolution
- It banned all industries
- It discovered ozone depletion
Show Answer
Answer: A — Stockholm put 'environment' on the world political agenda and led to UNEP's creation.
Q7. Which of the following is a SOCIAL component of the environment? Expected
- Soil type
- Rainfall
- Cultural traditions and institutions
- Temperature
Show Answer
Answer: C — Environment has three parts — physical (air, water, soil), biological (plants, animals) and social (culture, economy, institutions).
Q8. The scope of environmental studies includes — Expected
- Only climate
- Only air pollution
- Only wildlife
- Natural resources, ecosystems, biodiversity, pollution and social issues
Show Answer
Answer: D — The syllabus itself spans 7 units — from resource use to population — showing how wide the scope is.
Q9. The main cause of deforestation in India is — PYQ 🔥
- Heavy rainfall
- Wildlife protection programmes
- Agricultural expansion, timber extraction and mining
- Planting of trees
Show Answer
Answer: C — Forests are cleared fastest for farmland, timber and minerals — the three big drivers in India.
Q10. The Chipko movement (1973) was started to — Expected ⭐
- Promote industrialisation
- Protect trees from commercial felling in Uttarakhand
- Build large dams
- Start coal mining
Show Answer
Answer: B — Villagers hugged trees to stop contractors — Chipko became the symbol of grassroots forest conservation.
Q11. Large dams are opposed by environmentalists mainly because they cause — Expected
- Complete flood control
- More electricity generation
- Submergence of forests and displacement of tribal people
- Better irrigation for all
Show Answer
Answer: C — Dams give power and irrigation, but drown forests and displace lakhs — the syllabus lists both benefits and problems.
Q12. Over-utilisation of groundwater leads to — Expected
- Increased rainfall
- Falling water table and land subsidence
- Rising water table
- Cleaner groundwater
Show Answer
Answer: B — When withdrawal exceeds recharge, wells dry up and the land can sink — a crisis in many Indian states.
Q13. The environmental effects of mining include — Expected
- Cleaner air
- Deforestation, soil erosion and water pollution
- Growth of biodiversity
- Increase in forest cover
Show Answer
Answer: B — Open-cast mining strips forests, leaves waste dumps and pollutes rivers with silt and chemicals.
Q14. The Green Revolution increased food production but also caused — Expected
- Growth of forests
- Reduced water consumption
- Permanent soil enrichment
- Soil degradation, pesticide pollution and groundwater depletion
Show Answer
Answer: D — High-yield crops demanded heavy fertilisers, pesticides and tubewell water — the syllabus lists these side-effects.
Q15. Excessive use of chemical fertilisers causes — Expected
- More earthworms
- Soil degradation and water pollution (eutrophication)
- Cleaner rivers
- Everlasting soil fertility
Show Answer
Answer: B — Surplus nitrates run into lakes causing algal blooms; soils lose natural health — the classic fertiliser problem.
Q16. Waterlogging in irrigated fields leads to — Expected
- Better crop yields
- Lower water consumption
- More oxygen in the soil
- Salinity and reduced soil productivity
Show Answer
Answer: D — Stagnant water brings salts to the surface — waterlogging and salinity are twin canal-irrigation problems.
Q17. Which of the following is the cleanest and most abundant renewable energy source? Expected ⭐
- Petrol
- Coal
- Natural gas
- Solar energy
Show Answer
Answer: D — The sun delivers far more energy than humanity uses — solar is renewable, free and pollution-free at use.
Q18. Biogas is produced by — Expected
- Nuclear fission
- Refining petroleum
- Anaerobic decomposition of organic waste
- Burning coal
Show Answer
Answer: C — Cow dung and kitchen waste rot without oxygen to give methane-rich biogas — rural India's clean fuel.
Q19. Land degradation is caused by — Expected
- Planting trees
- Rainwater harvesting
- Deforestation, overgrazing and faulty irrigation
- Organic farming
Show Answer
Answer: C — Bare soil erodes, overgrazed pastures turn barren, bad irrigation salinises — all degrade land.
Q20. Desertification means — Expected
- Degradation of land in dry areas into desert-like conditions
- Planting trees in deserts
- Creation of new deserts by nature alone
- Increase of rainfall in deserts
Show Answer
Answer: A — Overuse turns productive drylands into desert — the syllabus lists it under land resources.
Q21. 'Equitable use of resources' means — Expected
- Fair sharing of resources between present needs and future generations
- Only rich countries may use resources
- Unlimited use by everyone
- Complete non-use of resources
Show Answer
Answer: A — Equity has two faces — fair today (rich vs poor) and fair tomorrow (us vs future generations).
Q22. India's national goal for forest cover is — Expected ⭐
- 33% of land area
- 100% of land area
- 50% of land area
- 10% of land area
Show Answer
Answer: A — The National Forest Policy (1988) targets one-third of land under forest/tree cover.
Q23. Petroleum and natural gas are considered non-renewable because they — Expected
- Cause no pollution
- Were formed over millions of years and cannot be replaced in human time
- Are too expensive to extract
- Are found only in India
Show Answer
Answer: B — Fossil fuels are ancient solar energy locked in rocks — we burn in decades what nature built over aeons.
Q24. The '10% law' of energy transfer in an ecosystem was given by — Expected ⭐
- Odum
- Tansley
- Darwin
- Lindeman
Show Answer
Answer: D — Lindeman (1942): only ~10% of energy passes to the next trophic level; the rest is lost as heat.
Q25. Which ecological pyramid is ALWAYS upright? PYQ 🔥
- Pyramid of numbers
- Pyramid of biomass
- Pyramid of energy
- Pyramid of species
Show Answer
Answer: C — Energy is lost at every level, so the energy pyramid can never be inverted — asked in 2 papers.
Q26. A food web differs from a food chain because — Expected
- It shows many interconnected food chains
- It has no decomposers
- It is always a straight line
- It has only one path of energy flow
Show Answer
Answer: A — Real nature is a web — one animal eats many things and is eaten by many; chains are simplifications.
Q27. Decomposers (bacteria and fungi) are important because they — Expected
- Recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter
- Produce oxygen
- Cause pollution
- Eat only producers
Show Answer
Answer: A — Without decomposers, dead bodies would pile up and nutrients would lock away — they close the cycle.
Q28. The final stable stage of ecological succession is called the — PYQ
- Pioneer community
- Nudation stage
- Sere stage
- Climax community
Show Answer
Answer: D — Pioneers start on bare land, seres follow, and the stable climax community is the endpoint — asked in 2 papers.
Q29. Primary succession occurs — Expected
- On bare lifeless surfaces like lava flows or bare rock
- After a forest fire
- In an area that already has soil
- In abandoned farmland
Show Answer
Answer: A — Primary = from scratch (no soil); secondary = on disturbed land where soil survives.
Q30. Desert ecosystems are characterised by — Expected
- Permanent ice cover
- Low rainfall, extreme temperatures and drought-adapted plants and animals
- High rainfall
- Dense evergreen forests
Show Answer
Answer: B — Desert life survives on adaptations — deep roots, nocturnal animals, water-storing stems.
Q31. A pond is considered a complete ecosystem because it has — Expected
- Only fish
- Producers, consumers and decomposers interacting
- No flow of energy
- Only water
Show Answer
Answer: B — The syllabus names the pond as a simple ecosystem to study — it has all components in miniature.
Q32. In an aquatic ecosystem, the main producers are — Expected
- Bacteria
- Phytoplankton and aquatic plants
- Fish
- Zooplankton
Show Answer
Answer: B — Tiny floating phytoplankton do most of the photosynthesis in water — the base of aquatic food chains.
Q33. Energy flow in an ecosystem is — Expected
- Bidirectional
- Unidirectional (one-way)
- Cyclic
- Random
Show Answer
Answer: B — Energy flows one way (sun → producers → consumers) and is lost as heat; only nutrients cycle.
Q34. Grassland ecosystems are dominated by — Expected
- Tall trees
- Cacti
- Aquatic plants
- Grasses with very few trees
Show Answer
Answer: D — Grasses rule where rainfall is too low for forests but enough for herbs — home of grazers.
Q35. An estuary is — Expected
- A type of dense forest
- A mountain peak
- A desert area
- The zone where a river meets the sea, mixing fresh and salt water
Show Answer
Answer: D — Estuaries are among the most productive ecosystems — nurseries for fish and shellfish.
Q36. Which of the following is an IN-SITU conservation method? PYQ 🔥
- Zoo
- Seed bank
- Botanical garden
- National park
Show Answer
Answer: D — In-situ = conservation in the natural habitat: national parks, sanctuaries, biosphere reserves — asked in 5 papers!
Q37. Which of the following is NOT under in-situ conservation? PYQ
- National park
- Aquarium
- Biosphere reserve
- Wildlife sanctuary
Show Answer
Answer: B — Aquarium keeps species outside their habitat — that is ex-situ; asked in 2 papers.
Q38. Project Tiger was launched in — PYQ 🔥
- 1992
- 2001
- 1980
- 1973
Show Answer
Answer: D — India's flagship tiger programme began in 1973 — asked in 2 papers.
Q39. How many biodiversity hotspots are found in India? Expected ⭐
- 4
- 12
- 8
- 2
Show Answer
Answer: A — Himalaya, Indo-Burma, Western Ghats and Sundaland (Nicobar) — 4 of the world's 36 hotspots.
Q40. A keystone species is — PYQ
- The most abundant species in an area
- A domesticated species
- An already extinct species
- A species whose removal causes the ecosystem to collapse
Show Answer
Answer: D — Like the keystone of an arch — remove it and the structure falls; asked in 2 papers.
Q41. An endemic species is one that — Expected
- Migrates every year
- Is found only in a particular region and nowhere else
- Is already extinct
- Is found everywhere in the world
Show Answer
Answer: B — Lion-tailed macaque (Western Ghats) is endemic — found nowhere else on Earth.
Q42. The Red Data Book contains — Expected
- A list of endangered species
- A list of minerals
- A list of crop varieties
- A list of rivers
Show Answer
Answer: A — Published by IUCN — the global record of threatened plants and animals.
Q43. Under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, Biodiversity Management Committees are constituted by — Expected
- The Central Government directly
- The State Biodiversity Boards
- Local bodies (panchayats and municipalities)
- The National Green Tribunal
Show Answer
Answer: C — Section 41 of the Act requires every local body to constitute a BMC, which prepares the People's Biodiversity Register for its area.
Q44. The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in — Expected ⭐
- 1986
- 2002
- 1972
- 1980
Show Answer
Answer: C — 1972 — India's landmark wildlife law; it created the schedules of protected species.
Q45. The Ramsar Convention is related to — PYQ
- Deserts
- Forests
- Mountains
- Wetlands
Show Answer
Answer: D — Signed at Ramsar, Iran (1971) for wetland conservation — asked in 2 papers.
Q46. Biosphere reserves in India are part of — Expected
- CITES alone
- Project Tiger alone
- UNESCO's Man and Biosphere Programme
- The Ramsar Convention alone
Show Answer
Answer: C — Nilgiri was India's first biosphere reserve (1986) under UNESCO's MAB programme.
Q47. The main difference between a national park and a wildlife sanctuary is — Expected
- Sanctuaries are always larger
- Parks have no wild animals
- Human activities are more strictly prohibited in national parks
- There is no difference
Show Answer
Answer: C — National parks ban grazing and forestry strictly; sanctuaries allow limited human use.
Q48. Genetic diversity is important because it — Expected
- Increases pollution
- Makes nature beautiful
- Reduces crop yields
- Helps species adapt to changes and resist diseases
Show Answer
Answer: D — Diverse genes = diverse defences; monocultures collapse when one disease strikes.
Q49. Man-wildlife conflict increases when — Expected
- Habitats shrink and animals enter human settlements
- Animals are fully protected
- People plant more trees
- Forests expand rapidly
Show Answer
Answer: A — Elephants raid crops and leopards take livestock when corridors and forests fragment.
Q50. The biggest threat to biodiversity is — Expected 🔥
- Zoos
- Scientific research
- Habitat loss and fragmentation
- Tourism
Show Answer
Answer: C — When habitats vanish, species follow — the syllabus lists it as the first threat.
Q51. India is called a mega-diversity nation because — Expected
- It has no forests
- It is the largest country
- It has a single climate
- It holds ~8% of recorded species on just 2.4% of the world's land
Show Answer
Answer: D — One of only 17 mega-diverse countries — huge variety packed into a small area.
Q52. Botanical gardens are an example of — Expected
- Ex-situ conservation
- No conservation
- Habitat destruction
- In-situ conservation
Show Answer
Answer: A — Plants kept outside their natural habitat = ex-situ, like zoos and seed banks.
Q53. Sacred groves are — Expected
- Commercial timber forests
- Forest patches protected because of religious beliefs
- National parks
- Zoological parks
Show Answer
Answer: B — India's traditional in-situ conservation — village deities guard these forest patches.
Q54. India is divided into how many biogeographic zones? Expected
- 10
- 20
- 15
- 5
Show Answer
Answer: A — From Trans-Himalaya to Coasts — 10 zones capture India's habitat variety.
Q55. Poaching of wildlife is mainly driven by — Expected
- Eco-tourism
- Conservation breeding
- Illegal trade in animal parts (ivory, skins, horns)
- Scientific research
Show Answer
Answer: C — Tiger bones, rhino horns, ivory — black-market demand fuels the killing.
Q56. The Bhopal Gas Tragedy (December 1984) was caused by the leakage of — PYQ 🔥
- Sulphur dioxide
- Methyl isocyanate (MIC)
- Chlorine gas
- Carbon monoxide
Show Answer
Answer: B — MIC leaked from the Union Carbide plant on the night of 2–3 December 1984 — asked in 2 papers.
Q57. Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by — PYQ
- Excess nitrates in drinking water
- Air pollution
- Excess fluoride in water
- Lead pollution
Show Answer
Answer: A — Nitrates turn haemoglobin into methaemoglobin — babies' lips and skin turn blue; asked in 2 papers.
Q58. Photochemical smog is formed by the reaction of — PYQ
- Dust and fog alone
- Sulphur dioxide and water vapour
- Nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons in sunlight
- Carbon dioxide and oxygen
Show Answer
Answer: C — Vehicle exhaust + sunlight = ozone and PAN — the brown haze over cities; asked in 2 papers.
Q59. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was passed in — PYQ
- 2002
- 1986
- 1974
- 1981
Show Answer
Answer: C — 1974 — India's first major pollution law; the Air Act followed in 1981; asked in 2 papers.
Q60. Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas? PYQ 🔥
- Carbon dioxide
- Methane
- Oxygen
- Nitrous oxide
Show Answer
Answer: C — O2 is not a greenhouse gas — CO2, CH4, N2O and water vapour are; asked in 3 papers!
Q61. Secondary air pollutants are — Expected
- Formed in the atmosphere by chemical reactions
- Emitted only by vehicles
- Emitted directly from sources
- Always harmless gases
Show Answer
Answer: A — Ozone and PAN are not emitted — they form when primary pollutants react in sunlight.
Q62. Noise is measured in — Expected
- Watts
- Joules
- Decibels
- Hertz
Show Answer
Answer: C — Decibels (dB) — above 80 dB prolonged exposure damages hearing.
Q63. Thermal pollution is mainly caused by — Expected
- Dumping of solid waste
- Discharge of cold water
- Discharge of heated water from power plants into rivers
- Loud noise
Show Answer
Answer: C — Hot water holds less oxygen — fish suffocate; the syllabus lists it under pollution types.
Q64. Marine pollution by oil spills mainly affects — Expected
- Seabirds and marine life
- Mountain plants
- Crop fields
- Desert animals
Show Answer
Answer: A — Oil coats feathers and gills — birds cannot fly, fish cannot breathe.
Q65. The Chernobyl disaster (1986) was a — Expected
- Chemical gas leak
- Earthquake
- Nuclear accident
- Oil spill
Show Answer
Answer: C — Reactor explosion in Ukraine (then USSR) spread radiation across Europe.
Q66. E-waste refers to — Expected ⭐
- Food waste
- Discarded electronic items like phones and computers
- Only hospital waste
- Farm residue
Show Answer
Answer: B — Phones, laptops, batteries — full of lead, mercury and cadmium; needs special handling.
Q67. The Richter scale measures — PYQ
- Rainfall amount
- Wind speed
- Earthquake magnitude
- Temperature
Show Answer
Answer: C — Each whole number is ~32× more energy — asked in 2 papers.
Q68. In the North Atlantic, intense tropical cyclones are called — PYQ
- Tsunamis
- Hurricanes
- Earthquakes
- Tornadoes
Show Answer
Answer: B — Same storm, different names — hurricane (Atlantic), typhoon (Pacific), cyclone (Indian Ocean); asked in 2 papers.
Q69. The International Tsunami Information Center is located in — PYQ
- Hawaii
- New Delhi
- Geneva
- Tokyo
Show Answer
Answer: A — Set up in Hawaii after the 1946 tsunami — asked in 2 papers.
Q70. Minamata disease is caused by — Expected ⭐
- Lead poisoning
- Mercury poisoning
- Cadmium poisoning
- Arsenic poisoning
Show Answer
Answer: B — Industrial mercury dumped into Japan's Minamata Bay poisoned fish — and people who ate them.
Q71. Itai-itai disease is caused by — Expected
- Lead
- Mercury
- Cadmium
- Fluoride
Show Answer
Answer: C — 'Itai-itai' means 'ouch-ouch' — cadmium in rice and water made bones brittle in Japan.
Q72. In water quality testing, BOD stands for — Expected
- Bacterial Overgrowth Disease
- Biochemical Oxygen Demand
- Biological Oil Deposit
- Basic Oxygen Level
Show Answer
Answer: B — Higher BOD = more organic pollution = less oxygen left for fish.
Q73. The main difference between smog and fog is — Expected
- There is no difference
- Fog is harmful but smog is not
- Smog contains pollutants while fog is only condensed water vapour
- Smog occurs only in villages
Show Answer
Answer: C — Smoke + fog = smog; fog alone is natural, smog is fog plus pollution.
Q74. An individual can help prevent pollution by — Expected
- Using more chemical pesticides
- Burning more fuel
- Throwing waste into rivers
- Using public transport and reducing plastic use
Show Answer
Answer: D — The syllabus gives the individual a role — small daily acts scale up to big change.
Q75. Landslides are commonly triggered by — Expected
- Deforestation and heavy rainfall on slopes
- Dry weather alone
- Planting trees on slopes
- Flat terrain
Show Answer
Answer: A — Tree roots hold soil; cut them on a steep rainy slope and the hill comes down.
Q76. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was passed in — Expected
- 1986
- 1974
- 1972
- 1981
Show Answer
Answer: D — 1981 — seven years after the Water Act; asked alongside it in 2 papers.
Q77. The Taj Mahal is being damaged by — Expected ⭐
- Annual floods
- Tourist footfall alone
- Acid rain from refinery and industrial emissions
- Frequent earthquakes
Show Answer
Answer: C — Marble + acid rain = corrosion — the Mathura refinery case led to the Taj Trapezium Zone.
Q78. The NDMA (National Disaster Management Authority) is headed by the — PYQ 🔥
- President
- Prime Minister
- Home Minister
- Environment Minister
Show Answer
Answer: B — The PM chairs NDMA — asked in 3 papers, a favourite repeat!
Q79. Ozone layer depletion is mainly caused by — Expected 🔥
- Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
- Oxygen
- Water vapour
- Carbon dioxide
Show Answer
Answer: A — CFCs from refrigerators and sprays release chlorine that eats ozone — the syllabus topic.
Q80. The Montreal Protocol (1987) aims to — Expected ⭐
- Stop deforestation worldwide
- Reduce greenhouse gas emissions
- Ban single-use plastic
- Phase out ozone-depleting substances
Show Answer
Answer: D — The world's most successful environment treaty — CFCs are nearly gone because of it.
Q81. The Environment (Protection) Act was passed in — Expected 🔥
- 1986
- 1980
- 2002
- 1972
Show Answer
Answer: A — 1986 — India's umbrella environment law, enacted after the Bhopal tragedy.
Q82. The main purpose of the Forest (Conservation) Act is to — Expected
- Stop states from diverting forest land to non-forest use without central approval
- Promote shifting cultivation
- Encourage cutting of forests
- Ban all wildlife tourism
Show Answer
Answer: A — 1980 — before this law, states freely gave forest land to industry; now the Centre must clear it.
Q83. Rainwater harvesting helps mainly in — Expected
- Wasting rainwater
- Causing droughts
- Increasing floods
- Recharging groundwater
Show Answer
Answer: D — Rooftop tanks and recharge pits send rain underground — the syllabus's water solution.
Q84. Watershed management involves — Expected
- Building large dams only
- Conservation of soil and water across a drainage area
- Draining out all water quickly
- Cutting forests for farms
Show Answer
Answer: B — Treat the whole catchment — check dams, contour bunds, afforestation — so rain stays where it falls.
Q85. Wasteland reclamation means — Expected
- Restoring degraded land for productive use
- Dumping city waste on land
- Creating new wastelands
- Mining in wastelands
Show Answer
Answer: A — Saline, mined or eroded lands can be greened again — a syllabus topic.
Q86. Consumerism harms the environment by — Expected
- Reducing waste generation
- Planting more trees
- Saving energy
- Increasing waste generation and resource consumption
Show Answer
Answer: D — 'Use and throw' culture fills landfills — the syllabus links consumerism to waste products.
Q87. Environmental ethics deals with — Expected
- Only economic profits
- Only legal punishments
- The moral relationship between humans and nature
- Only new technology
Show Answer
Answer: C — Do we owe anything to nature itself? Ethics asks what law cannot — a syllabus topic.
Q88. The Sardar Sarovar Project is mainly associated with — Expected
- Wildlife conservation success
- Displacement and rehabilitation issues on the Narmada
- Air pollution control
- Ozone layer recovery
Show Answer
Answer: B — The Narmada dam displaced thousands — rehabilitation became a national debate.
Q89. Urban problems related to energy include — Expected
- Excessively clean air
- High energy demand, pollution and heat-island effects
- Very low traffic
- Too many forests
Show Answer
Answer: B — Cities guzzle power, trap heat and choke on exhaust — the syllabus's urban-energy link.
Q90. The 'Green Advocate of India' is — PYQ
- M.C. Mehta
- R.K. Pachauri
- Salim Ali
- Sunderlal Bahuguna
Show Answer
Answer: A — Lawyer M.C. Mehta's PILs gave us the Taj Trapezium and Ganga cases — asked in 2 papers.
Q91. Public awareness about the environment spreads best through — Expected
- Education, media and campaigns
- Banning environmental books
- Ignoring the issues
- Hiding information from people
Show Answer
Answer: A — Awareness is a syllabus topic — informed citizens are the first line of defence.
Q92. The Brundtland Report defines sustainable development as — Expected ⭐
- Pursuing only economic growth
- Meeting present needs without compromising future generations' ability
- Using up all resources immediately
- Stopping all development activity
Show Answer
Answer: B — 'Our Common Future' (1987) — the definition behind every sustainability question.
Q93. Intergenerational equity means — Expected
- Only the present generation matters
- Fairness between present and future generations
- No fairness is needed
- Only the future generation matters
Show Answer
Answer: B — We are borrowers, not owners, of the Earth — equity across generations is sustainability's heart.
Q94. EIA stands for — Expected
- Energy in Agriculture
- Environmental Impact Assessment
- Ecological Indian Act
- Environment India Authority
Show Answer
Answer: B — EIA predicts a project's environmental damage before approval — mandatory for big projects.
Q95. Nuclear accidents mainly cause — Expected
- Only loud noise
- Cleaner surrounding air
- Increase in biodiversity
- Radiation release harming human health and the environment
Show Answer
Answer: D — Chernobyl and Fukushima showed radiation's long shadow — a syllabus topic.
Q96. The Chipko movement is an example of — Expected
- Dam construction
- Mining promotion
- Industrial growth policy
- Environmental ethics in action
Show Answer
Answer: D — Ordinary villagers acting on the belief that forests have value beyond timber — ethics lived.
Q97. Settlement and rehabilitation of displaced people is a serious concern because it involves — Expected
- Automatic increase in forests
- Guaranteed end of poverty
- People enjoying displacement
- Loss of home, livelihood and culture
Show Answer
Answer: D — Dams and mines uproot communities — compensation rarely replaces a way of life.
Q98. The doubling time of a population can be estimated by — Expected
- Counting the number of houses
- Adding the birth and death rates
- Multiplying the population by two
- Dividing 70 by the annual growth rate (Rule of 70)
Show Answer
Answer: D — At 2% growth, doubling takes ~35 years (70/2) — the demographer's quick rule.
Q99. Family welfare programmes promote — Expected
- The small-family norm through contraception and education
- Early marriage
- Larger families
- No healthcare for mothers
Show Answer
Answer: A — India's 1952 programme — the world's first — pushed the small-family norm.
Q100. Human rights related to the environment include the — Expected
- Right to waste water
- Right to cut forests at will
- Right to clean air, safe water and a healthy environment
- Right to pollute freely
Show Answer
Answer: C — A healthy environment is now read as part of the right to life — a syllabus topic.
