General English — Mock Paper 1
50 marks, 3 hours. This paper follows the official MGSU General English (AEC) pattern exactly: Sections A, B and C are compulsory (5 questions each); Section D — attempt any 5 out of 6; Section E — attempt any 3 out of 5 (250–300 words each).
Solve it in one 3-hour sitting without books — jaise real exam hall me karoge. Answer key har question ke neeche di gayi hai.
Instructions
The question paper is divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E. Attempt the questions of each section as per the instructions given.
Sections A, B, C: Answer all five questions. Each question carries 1.5 marks.
Section D: Answer any five questions out of six. Each question carries 2.5 marks.
Section E: Answer any three questions out of five. Each question carries 5 marks (250–300 words).
Section A (Unit 1: Phonetics and Morphology) — 5 x 1.5 = 7.5 marks
Q1. What are speech sounds? Name the two main types of speech sounds with one example each. (1.5)
Answer: Speech sounds are the sounds produced by the human speech organs (lungs, vocal cords, tongue, lips etc.) to form spoken language. The two main types are: (1) Vowels — produced without any obstruction of the air stream, e.g. /iː/ in "sheep"; (2) Consonants — produced with partial or complete obstruction of the air stream, e.g. /p/ in "pen".
Q2. Phonetically transcribe the following words: (a) Cat (b) Book (c) Pen. (1.5)
Answer: (a) Cat — /kæt/ (b) Book — /bʊk/ (c) Pen — /pen/
Q3. Put stress mark: (a) Important (b) Repeat (c) Table. (1.5)
Answer: (a) imˈportant (b) reˈpeat (c) ˈtable
Q4. Form three words using the prefix 'dis-'. (1.5)
Answer: disagree, disappear, dishonest.
Q5. Form three words using the suffix '-less'. (1.5)
Answer: careless, hopeless, fearless.
Section B (Unit 2: Grammar) — 5 x 1.5 = 7.5 marks
Q6. Make one sentence each on the following patterns: (a) Subject + Verb + Adverb (b) Subject + Verb + Object + Complement (c) Subject + Verb + Indirect Object + Direct Object. (1.5)
Answer: (a) She sings sweetly. (b) The students elected Rahul monitor. (c) He sent his friend a letter.
Q7. Fill in the blanks with appropriate determiners: (a) ______ of my classmates attended the function. (Few/A few) (b) The jar has ______ jam left. (little/a little) (c) ______ book on the shelf belongs to me. (This/These) (1.5)
Answer: (a) A few of my classmates attended the function. (b) The jar has a little jam left. (c) This book on the shelf belongs to me.
Q8. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb: (a) She ______ to college every day. (go) (b) They ______ a new library last month. (open) (c) Water ______ at 100°C. (boil) (1.5)
Answer: (a) She goes to college every day. (b) They opened a new library last month. (c) Water boils at 100°C.
Q9. Fill in the blanks with correct modals: (a) ______ you mind opening the window? (Would/Should) (b) He ______ be at home now; the lights are on. (must/can) (c) We ______ help the poor and the needy. (should/would) (1.5)
Answer: (a) Would you mind opening the window? (b) He must be at home now; the lights are on. (c) We should help the poor and the needy.
Q10. Rewrite the following sentences, correcting the error: (a) She do not like coffee. (b) One of the students have left early. (c) The informations are not correct. (1.5)
Answer: (a) She does not like coffee. (b) One of the students has left early. (c) The information is not correct.
Section C (Unit 3: Transformation) — 5 x 1.5 = 7.5 marks
Q11. Change the voice: (a) The gardener waters the plants every morning. (b) Someone has stolen my bicycle. (c) The teacher praised the students. (1.5)
Answer: (a) The plants are watered by the gardener every morning. (b) My bicycle has been stolen. (c) The students were praised by the teacher.
Q12. Change the following sentences into indirect speech: (a) Ramesh said, "I am going to Jaipur tomorrow." (b) The mother said to her son, "Don't waste your time." (c) He said, "I have completed my work." (1.5)
Answer: (a) Ramesh said that he was going to Jaipur the next day. (b) The mother advised her son not to waste his time. (c) He said that he had completed his work.
Q13. Transform the following simple sentences into complex: (a) Being tired, he went to bed early. (b) I know the reason of his absence. (c) The man standing at the gate is my uncle. (1.5)
Answer: (a) As he was tired, he went to bed early. (b) I know the reason why he was absent. (c) The man who is standing at the gate is my uncle.
Q14. Transform the following simple sentences into compound: (a) On receiving the prize, she smiled. (b) To escape punishment, he ran away. (c) Hearing the news, she burst into tears. (1.5)
Answer: (a) She received the prize and smiled. (b) He wanted to escape punishment, so he ran away. (c) She heard the news and burst into tears.
Q15. Change the following sentences into negative or interrogative: (a) She has completed her homework. (Negative) (b) He visits his grandmother every week. (Interrogative) (c) I can solve this problem. (Negative) (1.5)
Answer: (a) She has not completed her homework. (b) Does he visit his grandmother every week? (c) I cannot solve this problem.
Section D — Attempt any five questions. 5 x 2.5 = 12.5 marks
Q16. Elaborate and explain: "Slow and steady wins the race." (2.5)
Answer (model): This proverb comes from Aesop's famous fable of the hare and the tortoise. The overconfident hare ran fast but slept midway, while the slow tortoise kept walking steadily and won the race. The proverb teaches that consistent, patient and regular effort is more powerful than hasty, irregular bursts of speed. A student who studies two hours daily throughout the year scores better than one who studies day and night only before the exam. Similarly, learning a skill, building a business or improving health all need steady effort. Speed without consistency leads to mistakes and burnout. Hence, regularity and patience always defeat careless haste — slow and steady truly wins the race.
Q17. Expand the idea: "Knowledge is power." (2.5)
Answer (model): The saying "Knowledge is power" (given by Francis Bacon) means that true strength lies not in physical force but in what a person knows and understands. Knowledge gives confidence, better judgement and freedom from exploitation — an educated farmer uses weather information and modern methods to get a better crop, while an ignorant person is easily cheated. Knowledge opens the doors of jobs, respect and progress for individuals and nations; countries that invested in education and science became world leaders. But knowledge must be used wisely — used wrongly, it can also harm. In short, knowledge empowers a person to control his life and shape his future, which is why it is the greatest power of all.
Q18. Write the meaning of the following idioms: (a) To cry over spilt milk (b) Once in a blue moon (c) To beat around the bush (d) Under the weather (e) By hook or by crook. (2.5)
Answer: (a) To cry over spilt milk — to waste time regretting something that cannot be undone. (b) Once in a blue moon — very rarely. (c) To beat around the bush — to avoid saying what you really mean; to talk indirectly. (d) Under the weather — feeling slightly ill or unwell. (e) By hook or by crook — by any means possible, fair or unfair.
Q19. Paraphrase the following poem: (2.5)
Who has seen the wind?
Neither I nor you:
But when the leaves hang trembling,
The wind is passing through.
Who has seen the wind?
Neither you nor I:
But when the trees bow down their heads,
The wind is passing by.
— Christina Rossetti
Answer (model paraphrase): The poet asks a simple question — has anyone ever seen the wind? The answer is no: neither the poet nor the reader has seen it. Yet we all know the wind exists, because we can see its effects. When the leaves tremble and the trees bend down their heads, we understand that the wind is passing through them. The poem beautifully teaches that many real and powerful things in life — like the wind, love, thoughts and feelings — cannot be seen with the eyes, but are known clearly by their effects on the world around us.
Q20. Read the following poetic stanza and comment upon the central idea: (2.5)
Where the mind is without fear and the head is held high,
Where knowledge is free,
Where the world has not been broken up into fragments
By narrow domestic walls...
— Rabindranath Tagore
Answer (model): The central idea of the stanza is the poet's dream of true freedom for his country. Tagore prays for an India where people can think and speak without fear, with self-respect ("the head is held high"). He wants knowledge to be open to all, not limited to a few, and wishes that society should not be divided into fragments by the narrow walls of caste, religion and region. The stanza is both a prayer and a vision — freedom, for the poet, is not only political independence but also freedom of the mind, unity of the people and free access to knowledge. It remains one of the noblest expressions of patriotism in Indian English poetry.
Q21. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below: (2.5)
Trees are among the most useful gifts of nature to mankind. They give us shade in summer, fruits to eat, wood for furniture and fuel, and above all, the fresh oxygen we breathe. Trees also bring rain and keep the climate cool and pleasant. They check soil erosion and give shelter to birds and animals. In the modern age of growing cities and factories, trees are being cut down at an alarming speed. This is one of the main causes of global warming and pollution. If we continue to destroy forests, our future generations will suffer. Every citizen should therefore plant at least one tree every year and take care of it. A green earth is a healthy earth.
Questions: (i) Name any three gifts that trees give us. (ii) How do trees help the climate? (iii) What is one main cause of global warming mentioned in the passage? (iv) What should every citizen do? (v) Give a suitable title to the passage.
Answer: (i) Trees give us shade, fruits, wood for furniture and fuel, and fresh oxygen (any three). (ii) Trees bring rain and keep the climate cool and pleasant. (iii) Cutting down of trees (deforestation) is one main cause of global warming. (iv) Every citizen should plant at least one tree every year and take care of it. (v) A suitable title is "The Value of Trees" (or "Save Trees, Save Life").
Section E — Attempt any three questions. 3 x 5 = 15 marks (250–300 words each)
Q22. Write a report on the 'Annual Cultural Fest' organized in the College. (5)
Outline:
- Headline: "Annual Cultural Fest 'Udaan' Held at Government College"
- Byline: Reported by [Your Name], place and date line.
- Introduction: What, when, where — the three-day fest held in the college auditorium; inaugurated by the Principal/Chief Guest.
- Main body: Day-wise events — music, dance, drama, debate, rangoli and painting competitions; inter-college participation; prize distribution ceremony; chief guest's speech on the role of culture in education.
- Conclusion: Overall success, enthusiastic participation, vote of thanks.
Key points for 250–300 words: Use a formal, factual tone and past tense. Give names, dates and numbers (e.g. "over 500 students participated"). Avoid personal opinions. Keep a clear headline, then paragraphs in logical order: introduction → events → conclusion.
Q23. Write a brief note on the key characteristics of effective technical writing. (5)
Outline:
- Introduction: Technical writing explains complex or specialized information — manuals, reports, proposals — in a simple, usable form.
- Characteristics: (1) Clarity — simple words, short sentences; (2) Accuracy — every fact verifiable; (3) Conciseness — no decorative language; (4) Objectivity — facts, not personal opinions; (5) Audience-awareness — written for the reader's level; (6) Logical organization — headings, steps, bullets; (7) Use of visuals — tables, diagrams where needed.
- Examples: User manuals, lab reports, project proposals.
- Conclusion: Good technical writing saves time, prevents errors and builds trust.
Key points for 250–300 words: Define technical writing first, then explain 5–6 characteristics with one example each. Contrast briefly with literary/general writing. End with why it matters in jobs and industry.
Q24. Create a blog on "Importance of Physical Exercise." (5)
Outline:
- Catchy title: "Move Your Body, Change Your Life: Why Exercise Matters"
- Hook: Sedentary lifestyle — students sitting with phones/laptops for hours.
- Body: Benefits — physical health (weight, heart, immunity), mental health (stress relief, better sleep, sharper memory); simple forms — walking, yoga, cycling, sports.
- Practical tips: 30 minutes daily; start small; make it fun with friends.
- Conclusion + call to action: "Start today — your body is your real wealth."
Key points for 250–300 words: Use a friendly, conversational tone with subheadings. Address the reader directly ("you"). Add relatable student-life examples. End with a clear call to action.
Q25. Write a dialogue between two friends discussing the advantages and disadvantages of online shopping. (5)
Outline:
- Opening: Natural greeting — two friends, e.g. Aman and Vikas, meeting at the canteen.
- Aman (for): Convenience, home delivery, huge variety, discounts and easy price comparison.
- Vikas (against): Fake/defective products, delivery delays, no trial before buying, extra packaging waste.
- Balanced close: Both agree — online shopping is useful if one buys from trusted sites and checks reviews.
Key points for 250–300 words: Give the speakers names and use natural spoken language with turn-taking. Keep each speech short (2–4 lines). Show both sides fairly and end with a sensible conclusion, not a one-sided win.
Q26. You are Anjali. Write an e-mail to the Municipal Corporation complaining about the irregular supply of drinking water in your area. (5)
Outline:
- Subject: "Complaint regarding irregular drinking water supply in [Area Name]"
- Salutation: Respected Sir/Madam,
- Introduction: Introduce yourself as a resident of the area; state the purpose in one line.
- Problem: Specific facts — water comes only 2–3 days a week, timings uncertain, low pressure on upper floors.
- Request: Ask for regular daily supply and early action; mention willingness to cooperate.
- Closing: Thank you; "Yours faithfully, Anjali, [address], [phone number]".
Key points for 250–300 words: Keep a formal, polite but firm tone. A clear subject line and specific facts (days, timings) make the complaint effective. Keep paragraphs short and end with full contact details.
Total: 50 marks. Suggested time plan — Section A + B + C: 60 minutes; Section D: 50 minutes; Section E: 60 minutes; 10 minutes for revision. Section E me word limit ka dhyan rakho — 250–300 words me outline ke points cover karo, extra story mat jodo.
