General English — Guess Paper 2
50 marks, 3 hours. Same official MGSU pattern as the real paper: Sections A, B, C compulsory (5 questions each); Section D — attempt any 5 of 6; Section E — attempt any 3 of 5 (250–300 words each).
Honesty note: This is a PREDICTION paper, not a guarantee. Ye prediction hai, guarantee nahi hai — these questions are selected from PYQ rotation logic (jo pichhle papers me nahi aaya) and syllabus weightage, lekin actual exam me same questions aayenge iski koi guarantee nahi hai. Guess Paper 1 ke saath milakar practice karo — dono me koi question repeat nahi hai. Use it for smart practice, not as a shortcut.
Instructions
The question paper is divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E. Attempt the questions of each section as per the instructions given.
Sections A, B, C: Answer all five questions. Each question carries 1.5 marks.
Section D: Answer any five questions out of six. Each question carries 2.5 marks.
Section E: Answer any three questions out of five. Each question carries 5 marks (250–300 words).
Section A (Unit 1: Phonetics and Morphology) — 5 x 1.5 = 7.5 marks
Q1. What is word stress? Explain with two examples. (1.5)
Answer: Word stress is the extra force or emphasis given to one syllable of a word while speaking; the stressed syllable is spoken louder and longer. Examples: ˈpresent (noun — a gift) vs preˈsent (verb — to give); ˈrecord (noun) vs reˈcord (verb). A change in stress can change the meaning or the part of speech of a word.
Q2. Phonetically transcribe the following words: (a) Dog (b) Ship (c) Mother. (1.5)
Answer: (a) Dog — /dɒɡ/ (b) Ship — /ʃɪp/ (c) Mother — /ˈmʌðə(r)/
Q3. Put stress mark: (a) Computer (b) Afternoon (c) Happy. (1.5)
Answer: (a) comˈputer (b) afterˈnoon (c) ˈhappy
Q4. Form three words using the prefix 're-'. (1.5)
Answer: rewrite, rebuild, reappear.
Q5. Form three words using the suffix '-ment'. (1.5)
Answer: development, improvement, agreement.
Section B (Unit 2: Grammar) — 5 x 1.5 = 7.5 marks
Q6. Make one sentence each on the following patterns: (a) Subject + Verb + Indirect Object + Direct Object (b) Subject + Verb + Object + Complement (c) Subject + Verb + Object. (1.5)
Answer: (a) She gave me a gift. (b) They made him captain. (c) We watched a movie.
Q7. Fill in the blanks with appropriate determiners: (a) ______ water in this bottle is cold. (This/These) (b) He has ______ friends in this city. (few/a few) (c) I need ______ information about the course. (some/any) (1.5)
Answer: (a) This water in this bottle is cold. (b) He has few friends in this city. (c) I need some information about the course.
Q8. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb: (a) The sun ______ in the east. (rise) (b) She ______ her homework already. (do) (c) While I ______ dinner, the phone rang. (cook) (1.5)
Answer: (a) The sun rises in the east. (b) She has done her homework already. (c) While I was cooking dinner, the phone rang.
Q9. Fill in the blanks with correct modals: (a) You ______ park your car here; it is a no-parking zone. (cannot/must not) (b) Students ______ wear uniform in the school. (must/should) (c) ______ God bless you! (May/Can) (1.5)
Answer: (a) You cannot park your car here; it is a no-parking zone. (b) Students must wear uniform in the school. (c) May God bless you!
Q10. Rewrite the following sentences, correcting the error: (a) The sceneries of Kashmir are beautiful. (b) He is suffering from fever since Monday. (c) I prefer tea than coffee. (1.5)
Answer: (a) The scenery of Kashmir is beautiful. (b) He has been suffering from fever since Monday. (c) I prefer tea to coffee.
Section C (Unit 3: Transformation) — 5 x 1.5 = 7.5 marks
Q11. Change the voice: (a) My mother cooks delicious food. (b) The workers are building a bridge. (c) Open the door. (1.5)
Answer: (a) Delicious food is cooked by my mother. (b) A bridge is being built by the workers. (c) Let the door be opened.
Q12. Change the following sentences into indirect speech: (a) He said to me, "Are you coming with us?" (b) The teacher said, "The earth moves round the sun." (c) The captain said, "Bravo! We have won the match." (1.5)
Answer: (a) He asked me if I was going with them. (b) The teacher said that the earth moves round the sun. (No change in tense — universal truth.) (c) The captain exclaimed with joy that they had won the match.
Q13. Transform the following simple sentences into complex: (a) I saw a wounded bird. (b) The news of his failure shocked us. (c) Tell me your address. (1.5)
Answer: (a) I saw a bird that was wounded. (b) The news that he had failed shocked us. (c) Tell me what your address is.
Q14. Transform the following simple sentences into compound: (a) The old man, being weak, could not walk fast. (b) Not knowing the way, he asked a policeman. (c) He worked hard to pass the examination. (1.5)
Answer: (a) The old man was weak, so he could not walk fast. (b) He did not know the way, so he asked a policeman. (c) He wanted to pass the examination, so he worked hard.
Q15. Change the following sentences into negative or interrogative: (a) She can drive a car. (Interrogative) (b) He was present in the meeting. (Negative) (c) They play cricket in the evening. (Interrogative) (1.5)
Answer: (a) Can she drive a car? (b) He was not present in the meeting. (c) Do they play cricket in the evening?
Section D — Attempt any five questions. 5 x 2.5 = 12.5 marks
Q16. Elaborate and explain: "A friend in need is a friend indeed." (2.5)
Answer (model): This proverb means that a true friend is known not in happy times but in times of difficulty. When life is smooth, many people surround us; but when trouble comes — illness, failure or financial crisis — most disappear, and only the real friend stays and helps. A friend who lends money in need, who stands by you when others blame you, proves his friendship by action, not by sweet words. The proverb teaches two lessons: first, value and test friendship in hard times; second, be yourself the kind of friend who helps others in need. Sweet words are cheap — help in need is the real proof of friendship.
Q17. Expand the idea: "Time and tide wait for none." (2.5)
Answer (model): This line means that time moves on continuously and waits for nobody, just like the ocean's tide. Lost wealth can be earned again and lost health can sometimes be recovered, but lost time never returns. The student who wastes the year cannot bring it back; the farmer who misses the sowing season cannot get the crop. Successful people respect time — they plan, start early and never postpone important work. Punctuality and a proper routine are the practical forms of respecting time. Therefore we should use every hour wisely, because time and tide wait for none, and those who waste time are wasted by time.
Q18. Write the meaning of the following idioms: (a) To turn over a new leaf (b) A wild goose chase (c) To keep one's fingers crossed (d) To face the music (e) To make both ends meet. (2.5)
Answer: (a) To turn over a new leaf — to start behaving in a better way; to make a fresh start. (b) A wild goose chase — a hopeless or pointless search. (c) To keep one's fingers crossed — to hope for good luck. (d) To face the music — to accept the unpleasant consequences of one's actions. (e) To make both ends meet — to manage one's expenses within one's income.
Q19. Paraphrase the following poem: (2.5)
Hope is the thing with feathers
That perches in the soul,
And sings the tune without the words,
And never stops at all...
— Emily Dickinson
Answer (model paraphrase): The poet compares hope to a bird with feathers that lives (perches) in the human soul. Like a bird, hope keeps singing its sweet tune — a song without words — and it never stops singing. It sings sweetest when life is hardest, like a bird singing in a storm, yet it never asks for anything in return. The poem beautifully says that hope is a free, endless and selfless comfort: it stays with human beings in every difficulty and keeps their spirits alive without demanding any reward.
Q20. Read the following poetic stanza and comment upon the central idea: (2.5)
Water, water, everywhere,
And all the boards did shrink;
Water, water, everywhere,
Nor any drop to drink.
— S. T. Coleridge
Answer (model): The central idea of the stanza is the helplessness of human beings when they disrespect nature. The sailors are surrounded by sea water on all sides, yet they cannot drink a single drop — abundance itself has become useless. This is the punishment of the ancient mariner for killing the albatross, a harmless bird of good omen. The stanza teaches a powerful lesson: nature gives generously, but those who harm it must suffer. It also reflects a universal human condition — sometimes we are surrounded by resources yet unable to use them. Respect for nature is therefore not only moral but necessary for survival.
Q21. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below: (2.5)
Cleanliness is one of the most important habits for a healthy life. A clean body keeps us free from diseases, and clean surroundings keep our minds fresh and active. Dirty streets, open drains and garbage heaps breed mosquitoes and flies, which spread dangerous diseases like dengue and malaria. The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan has taught the nation that cleanliness is everyone's duty, not only the government's. Schools and colleges now teach students to keep their classrooms, hostels and playgrounds clean. Small habits — throwing waste in dustbins, washing hands before meals and keeping drinking water covered — can make a big difference. A clean India is the dream of every citizen, and it begins with each one of us.
Questions: (i) Why is cleanliness important for health? (ii) What spreads diseases like dengue and malaria? (iii) What has the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan taught the nation? (iv) Name any two small habits that can make a big difference. (v) Give a suitable title to the passage.
Answer: (i) Cleanliness is important because a clean body keeps us free from diseases and clean surroundings keep our minds fresh and active. (ii) Dirty streets, open drains and garbage heaps breed mosquitoes and flies, which spread dengue and malaria. (iii) The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan has taught that cleanliness is everyone's duty, not only the government's. (iv) Throwing waste in dustbins, washing hands before meals and keeping drinking water covered (any two). (v) A suitable title is "Importance of Cleanliness" (or "Clean India").
Section E — Attempt any three questions. 3 x 5 = 15 marks (250–300 words each)
Q22. Write a report on the 'Tree Plantation Drive' organized in the College. (5)
Outline:
- Headline: "Tree Plantation Drive Held at Government College"
- Byline: Reported by [Your Name], place and date line.
- Introduction: What, when, where — plantation drive on the college campus under the NSS unit; inaugurated by the Principal.
- Main body: Over 200 saplings (neem, peepal, gulmohar) planted by students and teachers; each student adopted one plant; forest department officer's speech on environment protection.
- Conclusion: Pledge to protect the saplings; vote of thanks.
Key points for 250–300 words: Formal tone, past tense, concrete numbers (saplings, participants). Mention who organized and who participated. End with the purpose and result of the drive.
Q23. Write a brief note on the structure and format of a good blog post. (5)
Outline:
- Introduction: A blog post is an online article; a clear structure keeps the reader engaged till the end.
- Structure: (1) Catchy title/headline; (2) Introduction with a hook; (3) Body divided by subheadings; (4) Short paragraphs, examples and images/links; (5) Conclusion with a call to action.
- Format tips: Conversational tone, 300–800 words, keywords for search, proofreading before publishing.
- Conclusion: Good structure turns casual visitors into regular readers.
Key points for 250–300 words: Explain each part of the structure with its purpose in one or two lines. Give one example of a good title vs a weak title. End with why structure matters for the reader.
Q24. Create a blog on "The Role of Youth in Nation Building." (5)
Outline:
- Catchy title: "Young India, Strong India: Why the Nation Needs Its Youth"
- Hook: India has one of the world's largest young populations — this is our greatest strength.
- Body: Youth in education, technology, social service and politics; examples — young entrepreneurs, soldiers, sportspersons; dangers of drug abuse and aimlessness.
- Conclusion + call to action: "The future of the nation is in your hands — build yourself, build India."
Key points for 250–300 words: Inspiring but realistic tone with subheadings. Use Indian examples the reader knows. Address young readers directly and end with a motivating call to action.
Q25. Write a dialogue between two friends discussing the harmful effects of excessive mobile phone use. (5)
Outline:
- Opening: Two friends, e.g. Rahul and Suresh, chatting in the evening; one is always on his phone.
- Rahul: Warns about effects — weak eyesight, less sleep, poor concentration in studies, less family time.
- Suresh: Admits the habit, shares his own experience of falling marks; both discuss solutions — fixed screen time, no phone during study.
- Close: Both promise to reduce phone use and meet for outdoor games instead.
Key points for 250–300 words: Natural spoken language with named speakers and short speeches. Show the problem through personal experience, not lecturing. End with practical solutions both friends accept.
Q26. You are Priya. Write an e-mail to the Principal of your college requesting him/her to organize an educational tour. (5)
Outline:
- Subject: "Request to organize an educational tour for students"
- Salutation: Respected Sir/Madam,
- Introduction: Introduce yourself — student of [class], writing on behalf of classmates.
- Request: Purpose — learning outside the classroom; suggested place (e.g. Jaipur — historical monuments); benefits — practical knowledge, unity among students; assurance of discipline.
- Closing: Thank you; "Yours obediently, Priya, [class/roll no.]".
Key points for 250–300 words: Polite and respectful tone throughout. Give clear reasons why the tour is useful, not just enjoyable. Keep it brief, specific and well-organized.
Total: 50 marks. Yaad rakho — ye prediction hai, guarantee nahi. Guess Paper 1 bhi solve karo — dono papers me koi question repeat nahi hai, dono milakar tumhara revision almost poora syllabus cover kar lega. Section E me pehle outline likho, phir 250–300 words me final answer.
